Hello Everyone, 61yo male presents with bilateral partial tear plantar fasciae, only symptomatic on R planus foot type, mostly midfoot with marked navicular drift & drop Weak glutes bilateral No hallux limitus or ankle equinus No history of neurological condition/stroke In gait, he abducts his feet, lifts knees excessively and flexes hips to gain ground clearance. Also medially pushes off halluces due to MLA not resupinating. I have been trying to wrap my head around why he would use a steppage gait when there is no foot drop, no limitation at the 1st MTPJ or ankle
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High Stepping / Steppage Gait without neurologic component
